BEL PYQ Probationary Engineer, Trainee Engineer & Deputy Engineer 2026 Download PDF (2023-2026, All Branches): BEL All Branches Previous Year Official Question Paper PDF Download

Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) conducts three separate technical recruitment exams — Probationary Engineer, Trainee Engineer, and Deputy Engineer — each with its own branch-wise question papers across Mechanical, Electrical, Electronics, and Computer Science streams. Notifyhere now hosts the complete previous year question paper (PYQ) collection for all three exams, from 2023 through the most recent BEL Deputy Engineer paper held on 1 February 2026 — a paper still missing from most other prep sites.

In this article BEL PYQ Probationary Engineer, Trainee Engineer & Deputy Engineer 2026 Download PDF (2023-2026, All Branches) is organized by exam, year, branch, and shift so you can find your exact paper without digging through mismatched listings elsewhere. All PDFs are hosted directly on Notifyhere and Please comment below what you want.

BEL All Branches Previous Year Official Question Paper: Quick Overview

DetailInformation
OrganizationBharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
Exams CoveredProbationary Engineer, Trainee Engineer, Deputy Engineer
Years Covered2023 – 2026
Branches CoveredMechanical, Electrical, Electronics/ECE, Computer Science
Paper LanguageEnglish (most papers); English & Hindi (where noted)
Latest Paper AddedBEL Deputy Engineer, held 1 February 2026
Probationary Engineer Exam Pattern125 Questions, 125 Marks, 120 Minutes
Deputy Engineer Exam PatternGeneral Awareness + Technical/Trade Aptitude sections
Official Websitebel-india.in

BEL Deputy Engineer Previous Year Question Papers

ExamDateQuestion Paper
BEL Deputy Engineer — Official Paper1 February 2026PDF (English)
BEL Paper Full
⚠️ Note: English content is verified accurate from the Answerkey PDF. There might be some minor mistakes in the Hindi translation.
BEL Deputy
Engineer
Previous Year Paper
(Mechanical)
01 Feb, 2026

Directions (Questions 1-12): Read the following passages carefully to answer the questions that follow.

Passage-I

We all know what posters are. In these modern days of advertising, there is scarcely a road along which we travel without passing one or other examples of the poster adviser’s activity. These posters vary in type from illuminated, electric signs with their flashing, alternating lights, to the small hand-painted effusions which advertise local concerts in the village halls. Before we attempt a detailed study of the methods by which poster hoardings are filled with eye-catching designs, let us examine one or two basic principles which would apply to any well-planned poster campaign. In the place we must appreciate that our poster will be read, in most cases, by a mobile public. It differs from the press advertisements in that it is not carried into the home or office and read at leisure. It remains in one place, and its message, therefore, must be capable of being assimilated by the reader who is passing, often in a hurry, with other and more important business in his mind. Again, unlike the press advertisement, the poster cannot carry a long and detailed message: the man in the street has not sufficient time to read it in these days of haste and bustle.

1. The tone of the passage is essentially
(1) critical.(2) analytical.(3) formal.(4) objective.
2. A poster need not be
(1) concise.(2) attractive.(3) colourful.(4) illustrated.
3. The most striking feature of the poster is that it

(1) does not give the details of the message.
(2) conveys the message to a large section of people.
(3) entertains and also informs people.
(4) beautifies the place where it is put up.

4. Which of the following is most likely to make a poster deliver its purpose well?
(1) Large size(2) Use of fancy letters
(3) Catchy slogan(4) Colourful picture
5. The press advertisement is better than a poster in which of the following contexts?

(1) It reaches far and wide.
(2) It is a cheaper mode of communicating the message.
(3) It does not require illustrations or eye-catching pictures.
(4) The reader can assimilate the details as per his ease and convenience.

6. The content of the poster must be essentially precise

(1) because it is often read in a hurry.
(2) so that it can be retained for long.
(3) because it is often read from a distance.
(4) so as to impress the reader.

Passage-II

To emancipate woman and make her the equal of man remains an impossibility so long as the woman is shut out from socially productive labour and restricted to private domestic labour. The emancipation of woman will only be possible when she can take part in production on a large social scale and domestic work no longer claims anything but an insignificant amount of her time. And only now has that become possible through modern large-scale industry which does not merely permit the employment of female labour over a wide range but positively demands it.

7. Which of the following phrases could replace ’emancipate’ as used in the passage?
(1) Bring forth(2) Set free(3) Pick up(4) Put forward
8. Which of the following is least likely to replace ‘shut out’ as used in the passage?
(1) Excluded(2) Barred(3) Prevented(4) Threatened
9. Which of the following could replace the phrase ‘private domestic labour’ as used in the passage?

(1) Doing their household chores    (2) Working in others’ homes
(3) Working in offices    (4) Working in small-scale enterprises

10. Which of the following phrase could replace ‘claims’ as used in the passage?
(1) Puts off(2) Takes in(3) Calls for(4) Draws out
11. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word ‘permit’ as used in the passage?
(1) Prevent(2) Compel(3) Banish(4) Deny
12. Which of the following correctly defines ‘positively demands it’ as used in the passage?

(1) The industry owners genuinely need female labour.
(2) The female workers prefer to work in large-scale factories.
(3) The female workers demand high wages to work in large-scale industries.
(4) The industry owners demand more employment for women from the Government.

Directions (Questions 13-14): In the given questions, complete the series by replacing ‘?’ from the given answer options. निर्देश (प्रश्न 13-14): दिए गए प्रश्न में, दिए गए उत्तर विकल्पों में से ‘?’ को प्रतिस्थापित करके श्रृंखला को पूरा करें।

13. 1, 6, 15, ‘?’, 45, 66, 91
(1) 24(2) 26(3) 27(4) 28
14. AC, FH, KM, PR, ‘?’
(1) UW(2) VW(3) UX(4) TV

Directions (Questions 15-16): In the given questions, find the odd one out. निर्देश (प्रश्न 15-16): दिए गए प्रश्न में से विषम को ज्ञात कीजिए।

15. 69, 55, 26, 13, 5
(1) 5(2) 13(3) 26(4) 55
16. G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L
(1) G4T(2) J10R(3) M20P(4) P43N

Directions (Questions 17-19): Study the given information carefully to answer the following questions. निर्देश (प्रश्न 17-19): निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए दी गई जानकारी का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन करें।

There are eight members in a family namely A, B, C, D, K, L, M and N in which there are two married couples. Among the eight members, there are two lawyers and two artists. D is the daughter-in-law of M. L is the brother of any of the two artists. N, who is the artist, is the sister of A. No female is a lawyer. D is an artist. C is the husband of M. K is the only son of M. B is the lawyer and is the brother of C. A is the lawyer and is the son of K. एक परिवार में आठ सदस्य हैं, जिनके नाम A, B, C, D, K, L, M और N हैं। परिवार में दो विवाहित जोड़े हैं। इन आठ सदस्यों में से दो वकील और दो कलाकार हैं। D, M की बहू है। L, दोनों कलाकारों में से किसी एक का भाई है। N, जो एक कलाकार है, A की बहन है। परिवार में कोई भी महिला, वकील नहीं है। D एक कलाकार है। C, M का पति है। K, M का इकलौता पुत्र है। B एक वकील है और C का भाई है। A एक वकील है और K का पुत्र है।

17. Whose profession cannot be determined?
(1) A(2) B(3) K(4) None of these

किसका पेशा निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता? (1) A (2) B (3) K (4) इनमें से कोई नहीं

18. How many female members are there in the family?
(1) 3(2) 4(3) 5(4) 6

परिवार में कितनी महिला सदस्य हैं? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

19. Which pair would be grandsons of M?
(1) D, A(2) N, K(3) A, K(4) None of these

M के पोते कौन होंगे? (1) D, A (2) N, K (3) A, K (4) इनमें से कोई नहीं

20. A six-sided dice is rolled twice. Given that the sum of the two rolls is greater than 8, what is the probability that the first roll is 6? एक छह-पृष्ठ वाले पासे को दो बार उछाला जाता है। यदि दोनों बार उछाले गए पासों का योग 8 से अधिक है, तो पहली बार उछालने पर 6 आने की प्रायिकता क्या है?
(1) 1/6(2) 1/5(3) 1/2(4) 2/5
21. If John faces north and turns 90 degrees clockwise, then 180 degrees counterclockwise, and finally 45 degrees clockwise, what direction is he facing now? यदि जॉन उत्तर की ओर मुख करके 90 डिग्री दक्षिणावर्त, फिर 180 डिग्री वामावर्त और अंत में 45 डिग्री दक्षिणावर्त घूमता है, तो अब उसका मुख किस दिशा में है?
(1) North-West(2) North-East(3) South-East(4) South-West

(1) उत्तर-पश्चिम (2) उत्तर-पूर्व (3) दक्षिण-पूर्व (4) दक्षिण-पश्चिम

22. If ‘ENIGMA’ is coded as ‘INEAMG’, how is ‘ANALOGSIGNAL’ coded? यदि ‘ENIGMA’ को ‘INEAMG’ के रूप में कोडित किया जाता है, तो ‘ANALOGSIGNAL’ को कैसे कोडित किया जाएगा?
(1) NOGAYLSIGLAN(2) LGYANAISGNLA
(3) ANAGOLGISLAN(4) ANYLAGSINGLA
23. Sumit is ranked 10th from the top and 84th from the bottom of his class. What is the total strength of the class? सुमित अपनी कक्षा में ऊपर से 10वें और नीचे से 84वें स्थान पर है। कक्षा में कुल कितने छात्र हैं?
(1) 95(2) 94(3) 96(4) 93
24. How many times between 12:00 and 12:59 do the minute and hour hands of a clock overlap? 12:00 और 12:59 के बीच घड़ी की मिनट और घंटे की सुइयां कितनी बार एक दूसरे को ओवरलैप करती हैं?
(1) 1(2) 2(3) 0(4) 4
25. If Derek says, ‘Paul’s mother is the only sister of my mother’, how is Paul related to Derek? यदि डेरेक कहता है, ‘पॉल की मां, मेरी मां की इकलौती बहन है’, तो पॉल का डेरेक से क्या रिश्ता है?
(1) Nephew(2) Cousin(3) Uncle(4) Brother

(1) भतीजा (2) चचेरा भाई (3) चाचा (4) भाई

26. The difference between a two-digit number and the number formed by reversing its digits is always divisible by _______. दो अंकों की संख्या और उसके अंकों को उलट कर बनाई गई संख्या का अंतर हमेशा _______ से विभाज्य होता है।
(1) 4(2) 5(3) 7(4) 9
27. If 13 is added to five times of a number, the result is 23. Find the number. यदि किसी संख्या के पांच गुना में 13 जोड़ा जाए, तो परिणाम 23 होता है। वह संख्या ज्ञात कीजिए।
(1) 1(2) 2(3) 3(4) 4
28. The difference between the largest six-digit number and the smallest four-digit number is divisible by__________. सबसे बड़ी छह अंकों की संख्या और सबसे छोटी चार अंकों की संख्या का अंतर __________ से विभाज्य होता है।
(1) 11(2) 8(3) 3(4) None of these

(1) 11 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) इनमें से कोई नहीं

29. Which of the following numbers is a common factor of 343 and 147? निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी संख्या 343 और 147 का उभयनिष्ठ गुणनखंड है?
(1) 3(2) 21(3) 49(4) None of these
30. A sum of ₹2580 is divided between Raj and Pawan in the ratio of 5:7. How much money (in ₹) will Raj get? ₹2580 की राशि राज और पवन के बीच 5:7 के अनुपात में बांटी जाती है। राज को कितने रुपये मिलेंगे?
(1) 975(2) 1165(3) 1075(4) 1305
31. Dev’s age is five times his brother’s age. Their mother’s age is thrice of Dev’s age. What is the ratio of the ages of Dev’s brother to that of their mother? देव की आयु उसके भाई की आयु से पांच गुना है। उनकी माता की आयु, देव की आयु से तिगुनी है। देव के भाई और उनकी माता की आयु का अनुपात क्या है?
(1) 1:5(2) 5:1(3) 2:5(4) 1:15
32. What is the rate of interest per annum if a simple interest of ₹60 is earned on a sum of ₹400 in 4 years? यदि ₹400 की राशि पर 4 वर्षों में ₹60 का साधारण ब्याज अर्जित होता है, तो प्रति वर्ष ब्याज दर क्या होगी?
(1) 3.75%(2) 3.85%(3) 3.65%(4) 3.55%
33. The compound interest on ₹8000 for a period of 2 years at 5% per annum is ________(in ₹). ₹8000 पर 2 वर्ष की अवधि के लिए 5% प्रति वर्ष की दर से चक्रवृद्धि ब्याज ________ (₹ में) है।
(1) 780(2) 970(3) 890(4) 820
34. The price of a shirt is ₹240. If it is reduced by 15%, the new price of the shirt will be ______________ (in ₹). एक कमीज़ की कीमत ₹240 है। यदि इसे 15% कम कर दिया जाए, तो कमीज़ की नई कीमत ______________ (₹ में) होगी।
(1) 225(2) 204(3) 224(4) 203
35. A shopkeeper suffered a loss of 25% by selling a book for ₹720. What will be his gain percent if he sells the same book for ₹1200? एक दुकानदार को एक किताब ₹720 में बेचने पर 25% की हानि हुई। यदि वह उसी किताब को ₹1200 में बेचता है, तो उसका लाभ प्रतिशत क्या होगा?
(1) 25%(2) 20%(3) 15%(4) 35%
36. If three consecutive natural numbers p, q and r are such that p<q<r, then the mean of p, q and r is ______. यदि तीन क्रमागत प्राकृतिक संख्याएं p, q और r इस प्रकार हैं कि p<q<r, तो p, q और r का माध्य ______ है।
(1) p(2) q(3) r(4) 0
37. How many minutes will a motor-car travelling at 45 km/hr take to cover a distance of 15 km? 45 किमी/घंटा की गति से चलने वाली एक मोटरकार को 15 किमी की दूरी तय करने में कितने मिनट लगेंगे?
(1) 15(2) 20(3) 10(4) 30
38. In what ratio should tea ‘A’ at ₹12.30 per kg be mixed with tea ‘B’ at ₹10.50 per kg, so that the mixture becomes worth ₹11 per kg? ₹12.30 प्रति कि.ग्रा. की चाय ‘A’ को ₹10.50 प्रति कि.ग्रा. की चाय ‘B’ के साथ किस अनुपात में मिलाया जाए, ताकि मिश्रण का मूल्य ₹11 प्रति कि.ग्रा. हो जाए?
(1) 13:5(2) 5:9(3) 5:13(4) 9:5
39. Which one of the following is a language that can be used to create a webpage? निम्नलिखित में से वह कौन सी भाषा है जिसका उपयोग वेबपेज बनाने के लिए किया जा सकता है?
(1) HTML(2) C(3) BASIC(4) SQL
40. A _______ is a software program that lets you interact with the information available on the web. _______ एक सॉफ्टवेयर प्रोग्राम है जो आपको वेब पर उपलब्ध जानकारी के साथ इंटरैक्ट करने की सुविधा देता है।
(1) search engine(2) browser(3) client(4) None of these
41. Which of the following statements is correct about a computer system?

(1) There are two kinds of computer memory: primary and secondary.
(2) The computer can understand decimal systems also.
(3) The storage of program and data in the RAM is permanent.
(4) PROM is secondary memory.

कंप्यूटर सिस्टम के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है? (1) कंप्यूटर मेमोरी दो प्रकार की होती है: प्राथमिक और द्वितीयक। (2) कम्प्यूटर दशमलव प्रणाली को भी समझ सकता है। (3) RAM में प्रोग्राम और डेटा का स्टोरेज स्थायी होता है। (4) PROM सेकेंडरी मेमोरी है।

42. On internet, when we navigate from one page to another in search of the desired information or to complete a particular task, it is known as
(1) web finding.(2) exploring the site.(3) web browsing.(4) None of these

इंटरनेट पर जब हम वांछित जानकारी की तलाश में या किसी विशेष कार्य को पूरा करने के लिए एक पृष्ठ से दूसरे पृष्ठ पर जाते हैं, तो इसे ____________ कहा जाता है। (1) वेब खोज (2) साइट की खोज करना (3) वेब ब्राउज़िंग (4) इनमें से कोई नहीं

43. ______ folder in email is used to store emails that you have not yet finished writing or that you intend to send later. ईमेल में ______ फोल्डर का उपयोग उन ईमेल को संग्रहित करने के लिए किया जाता है जिन्हें आपने अभी तक लिखना समाप्त नहीं किया है या जिन्हें आप बाद में भेजने का इरादा रखते हैं।
(1) Draft(2) Inbox(3) Outbox(4) None of these
44. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from the____________. कंप्यूटर प्रोग्राम के सबसे अधिक उपयोग किए जाने वाले निर्देश ____________ से प्राप्त होने की संभावना होती है।
(1) Hard Disk(2) Cache Memory(3) SD Card(4) CD
45. In MS Excel, what does a red triangle at the top right-hand corner of a cell indicate?

(1) There is a grammatical error in the text contained in the cell.
(2) There is a spelling mistake in the text contained in the cell.
(3) The user has linked a comment to that cell.
(4) The cell content is a hyperlink to another program.

एमएस एक्सेल में, सेल के ऊपरी दाएं कोने पर एक लाल त्रिकोण क्या दर्शाता है? (1) सेल में निहित पाठ में व्याकरण संबंधी त्रुटि है। (2) सेल में मौजूद टेक्स्ट में वर्तनी की गलती है। (3) उपयोगकर्ता ने एक टिप्पणी को उस सेल से लिंक किया है। (4) सेल सामग्री किसी अन्य प्रोग्राम का हाइपरलिंक है।

46. In MS Word, a link to a webpage, email address or a picture can be created using the ______ feature in the Insert tab. एमएस वर्ड में, इन्सर्ट टैब में _____ फीचर का उपयोग करके किसी वेबपेज, ईमेल पते या चित्र का लिंक बनाया जा सकता है।
(1) Bookmark(2) Cross reference(3) Hyperlink(4) Smartlink
47. In MS Word, what is “Thesaurus” used for? एमएस वर्ड में “थिसॉरस” का उपयोग किसके लिए किया जाता है?
(1) Spelling Options(2) Grammar Options
(3) Synonyms and Antonyms Options(4) None of these
48. In MS Excel, what does SUMIF function do?

(1) Adds up cell values based on a condition.   (2) Adds all the numbers in a range of cells.
(3) Returns a subtotal in a list or database.   (4) All these

49. In MS PowerPoint, special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called________. एमएस पावरप्वाइंट में, प्रेजेंटेशन में स्लाइड पेश करने के लिए उपयोग किए जाने वाले विशेष प्रभावों को ________ कहा जाता है।
(1) Effects(2) Custom Animations(3) Transitions(4) Present Animations
50. In MS PowerPoint, which option allows user to select line, arcs, turns, shapes tools? एमएस पावरप्वाइंट में, कौन सा विकल्प उपयोगकर्ता को लाइन, आर्क्स, टर्न्स, शेप्स टूल्स का चयन करने की अनुमति देता है?
(1) Create Effect(2) Motion Paths(3) Define path(4) All these
51. Which thermodynamics approach needs knowledge of the behaviour of individual particles? ऊष्मागतिकी के किस दृष्टिकोण के लिए एकल कणों के व्यवहार के ज्ञान की आवश्यकता होती है?
(1) Macroscopic(2) Microscopic(3) Molecular(4) Statistical
52. Which law says that gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume at constant temperature? कौन-सा नियम कहता है कि स्थिर तापमान पर गैस का दाब गैस के आयतन के व्युत्क्रमानुपाती होता है?
(1) Charles law(2) Boyle’s law(3) Avogadro’s law(4) Gay-Lussac’s law
53. In which type of flow do fluid properties like velocity and pressure at a point change with time? किस प्रकार के प्रवाह में किसी बिंदु पर वेग और दबाव जैसे द्रव गुण समय के साथ बदलते हैं?
(1) Steady flow(2) Uniform flow(3) Unsteady flow(4) Laminar flow
54. When a pattern is rapped (shaken) before removal and the mould cavity becomes slightly larger, which allowance is taken as negative to get correct casting size?

(1) Machining allowance   (2) Shrinkage allowance
(3) Distortion allowance   (4) Shaking (Rapping) allowance

55. In BIS/ISO engineering drawing lettering, by what is the letter size h measured?

(1) By width of small letters   (2) By height of capital letters
(3) By thickness of letter lines   (4) By gap between two words

56. What is the name of the intersection line of a plane surface with the Horizontal Plane (HP)?

(1) Horizontal Trace (HT)   (2) Vertical Trace (VT)
(3) Oblique Trace (OT)   (4) Perpendicular Trace (PT)

57. In a CAD lab, you need to change only a small part of a complex drawing on the screen. With a DVST display, what is the main limitation you will face?

(1) The entire screen must be erased to change anything
(2) The picture flickers a lot at high resolution
(3) The picture disappears automatically after few seconds
(4) DVST mainly supports smooth animation

58. In NC programming, when the next tool position is given with respect to the previous tool position, what is this method called?

(1) Absolute positioning   (2) Incremental positioning
(3) Fixed zero   (4) Floating zero

59. In an I.C. engine test, Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC) is used to show fuel efficiency. As per definition, which formula correctly represents SFC?
(1) SFC = mf / B.P. kg/kWh(2) SFC = B.P. / mf kg/kWh
(3) SFC = mf × B.P. kg/kWh(4) SFC = mf / B.P.² kg/kWh
60. How are crystallographic direction indices written in a cubic crystal?

(1) In round brackets (uvw)   (2) In curly brackets {uvw}
(3) In square brackets [uvw]   (4) In angle brackets ⟨hkl⟩

61. When the control module cuts primary coil current, what causes high voltage in the secondary coil?

(1) Battery boost   (2) Changing magnetic field
(3) Distributor rotation   (4) Fuel entry

62. Why are ceramics generally strong in compression but weak in tension?

(1) Flaws do not amplify stress much in compression
(2) Flaws increase stress more in compression only
(3) Ceramics show high plastic deformation in tension
(4) Ceramics have no microscopic flaws at all

63. According to the law of parallelogram of forces, what represents the resultant of two forces?

(1) One side of the parallelogram   (2) Diagonal of the parallelogram
(3) Area of the parallelogram   (4) Perimeter of the parallelogram

64. Which type of support allows the beam to slide and gives a reaction perpendicular to the surface?
(1) Simple support(2) Hinged support(3) Fixed support(4) Roller support
65. According to the parallel axis theorem, what is the formula for moment of inertia about axis?
(1) I_AB = I_G − ah²(2) I_AB = I_G + ah²
(3) I_AB = I_G + h²(4) I_AB = aI_G + h²
66. According to the principle of transmissibility, a force can be shifted to another point on a rigid body along which line?

(1) Same line of action   (2) Same plane surface
(3) Same centre point   (4) Same direction only

67. If a pair can move only in one fixed direction, what is this motion called?

(1) Incompletely constrained motion   (2) Successfully constrained motion
(3) Completely constrained motion   (4) Unrestricted constrained motion

68. If two links have turning (rotating) and sliding motion between them, what is this pair called?
(1) Sliding pair(2) Turning pair(3) Screw pair(4) Rolling pair
69. According to Grashof’s law for a four bar mechanism, which condition should be true?

(1) Sum of shortest and longest link is greater than other two links
(2) Sum of shortest and longest link is not greater than other two links
(3) Sum of shortest and longest link equals the shortest link
(4) Sum of shortest and longest link is less than one link only

70. Which device is the simplest manometer used to measure gauge pressure?

(1) Piezometer   (2) U-tube manometer
(3) Bourdon tube gauge   (4) Bellows gauge

71. In a workshop, a drawing needs to be copied in exactly double size without changing its shape. What is a pantograph mainly used for?

(1) Copy a path in bigger/smaller size   (2) Change speed of two rotating shafts
(3) Measure force between two links   (4) Stop motion of a four bar system

72. Why do molecules at the surface of a liquid get pulled inward (towards the liquid)?

(1) Gas molecules have stronger hydrogen bonds than liquid
(2) Brownian motion stops molecules from moving in liquid
(3) Dust particles always push molecules towards the gas
(4) Liquid molecules are packed closer than gas molecules

73. If the capillary tube radius r becomes smaller, what happens to the capillary rise h?
(1) h decreases(2) h increases(3) h becomes zero(4) h stays same
74. When a thin needle is placed gently on water, it does not sink because the water surface behaves like a stretched film. What is called surface tension?

(1) Tensile force per unit length on a liquid surface
(2) Mass per unit volume of a liquid
(3) Resistance of a liquid to flow
(4) Force per unit area in a fluid

75. While designing a steel rod, the working stress is kept much lower than the ultimate stress to avoid failure. What is the formula of Factor of Safety?

(1) Working Stress / Ultimate Stress   (2) Ultimate Stress / Working Stress
(3) Yield Stress / Ultimate Stress   (4) Ultimate Stress / Yield Stress

76. What is the correct relation for normal stress and normal strain as per Hooke’s law?
(1) σ = E ε(2) σ = G γ(3) τ = E ε(4) εᵥ = ΔV/V₀
77. Which of the following assumptions is valid for a circular shaft under torsion?

(1) Shaft material is non-uniform
(2) Twist along the shaft is uniform
(3) Shaft cross-section becomes oval after twist
(4) Diameter of shaft changes during torsion

78. A solid steel shaft transmits a torque of 6 kN·m. The maximum shear stress is limited to 50 MPa. What is the minimum diameter of the shaft?
(1) 70 mm(2) 85 mm(3) 95 mm(4) 110 mm
79. A vessel has boiling water. Heat can cross the boundary, but water (mass) cannot escape because the vessel is closed. What type of thermodynamic system is this?
(1) Open system(2) Isolated system(3) Control volume(4) Closed system
80. What must be true for a system to be in thermodynamic equilibrium (no spontaneous change in macroscopic properties when isolated)?

(1) Mechanical, Chemical and Thermal equilibrium
(2) Thermal equilibrium
(3) Mechanical equilibrium
(4) Chemical equilibrium

81. What does the Zeroth Law state?

(1) Same temperature means thermal equilibrium
(2) Heat flows from cold to hot
(3) Pressure is proportional to volume
(4) Work is always equal to heat

82. A 2 kg mass is taken to a place where the local gravity is 8.20 m/s². Using F=mg, what will be its weight?
(1) 16.4 N(2) 8.20 N(3) 16.4 kg(4) 8.20 m/s²
83. What is the correct relation between specific volume (v) and density (ρ)?
(1) v = 1/ρ(2) v = ρ(3) ρ = v(4) v = ρ×ρ
84. In a gas cylinder, how is pressure explained in the macroscopic view as?

(1) Motion of each molecule   (2) Average force/area
(3) Molecular collisions   (4) Property measured by a gauge

85. When a solid body is fully inside a liquid and kept still, why does it feel an upward force?

(1) Pressure is same on all sides, so no net force
(2) Pressure is more at the bottom than at the top
(3) Only atmospheric pressure pushes it up
(4) Liquid pulls the body upward due to friction

86. Which one of the following is an assumption made while finding the power needed to drive a compressor?

(1) Friction losses are considered   (2) Compression takes place in many cylinders
(3) Working fluid behaves as a perfect gas   (4) There is a pressure drop in delivery valves

87. A heat engine is an external combustion (EC) engine and also a rotary type. Which engine matches this classification?
(1) Gasoline engine(2) Stirling engine(3) Steam turbine(4) Diesel engine
88. In a dynamometer test, the net load on the brake drum is W and the effective radius is R. If the crankshaft speed is N rpm, which expression correctly gives the brake power (B.P.) in kW?
(1) B.P.=2πN(W×R)/6000(2) B.P.=6000/2πN(W×R)
(3) B.P.=2π(W×R)/6000N(4) B.P.=W/RN
89. In a petrol engine, there are heavy carbon deposits inside the cylinder. Which effect is most likely to increase surface ignition risk?

(1) Lower compression ratio   (2) Higher compression ratio
(3) Better heat transfer   (4) Spark plug stops working

90. In fuel–air cycle analysis, what is assumed about heat transfer between the gas and cylinder walls?

(1) Heat is added from the walls   (2) Heat is lost to the walls
(3) No heat transfer takes place   (4) Heat transfer changes every second

91. In resistance welding, how is heat produced at the joint?

(1) By passing heavy current through the contact area
(2) By using a flame to heat the plates before pressing
(3) By adding filler metal to melt and join the plates
(4) By applying flux to create heat at the joint

92. In thermit welding, aluminium powder is mixed with iron oxide and the reaction gives molten iron and slag. Which statement is correct?

(1) Chemical reaction gives heat   (2) Arc welding with flux and filler
(3) Reaction absorbs heat   (4) Slag sinks, iron floats

93. During sand casting, why are vent holes made in the cope with a vent wire?

(1) To make the sand stronger and harder
(2) To increase the mould cavity size
(3) To let gases escape during pouring and solidifying
(4) To increase the metal pouring speed

94. A metal is being flattened into thin sheets without cracking during hot/cold working. Which material property is mainly required for this operation?
(1) Plasticity(2) Elasticity(3) Ductility(4) Malleability
95. When the load on the engine increases, what happens to the governor balls and sleeve?

(1) Balls move outward and sleeve moves upward
(2) Balls move inward and sleeve moves downward
(3) Balls move inward and sleeve moves upward
(4) Balls move outward and sleeve moves downward

96. When the engine turning moment T is greater than the mean resisting torque Tmean, what happens?

(1) Crankshaft slows down   (2) Crankshaft speeds up
(3) Crankshaft stops   (4) Torque becomes zero always

97. In the direct and reverse cranks method, if the direct crank OC rotates clockwise at angular speed ω, how does the reverse crank OC′ rotate?
(1) Clockwise at ω(2) Anticlockwise at ω(3) Clockwise at ω/2(4) Anticlockwise at 2ω
98. A machine part is under a bi-axial stress system. As per Rankine’s theory, failure/yielding is predicted when the maximum principal (normal) stress reaches which limiting value?

(1) Limiting strength from simple tension test
(2) Maximum shear stress value
(3) Distortion energy (von Mises) value
(4) Zero principal stress

99. If a shaft twists and untwists as the disc moves in a circle about the shaft axis, what vibration is it?

(1) Longitudinal vibration   (2) Transverse vibration
(3) Rotary vibration   (4) Torsional vibration

100. In a circumferential lap joint of a boiler, rivets are in which type of shear?
(1) Double shear(2) Single shear(3) Bending stress(4) Bearing stress
101. When is a riveted joint called an eccentrically loaded riveted joint?

(1) Load line passes through centroid, so rivets share load equally
(2) Load line misses the rivet-group centroid, so rivets are not equally loaded
(3) Only direct shear acts, so no twisting effect is produced
(4) Eccentricity e is the distance between two rivets

102. A bolt of nominal diameter d is used with a nut made of cast iron (weaker than mild steel). What nut height is recommended?
(1) 3d(2) 1.5d(3) 2d(4) 2.5d
103. A thermos coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C. Which statement is correct about what thermodynamics and heat transfer can tell you?

(1) Thermodynamics gives cooling time; heat transfer gives total heat only
(2) Thermodynamics gives total heat; heat transfer gives cooling time/rate
(3) Both give cooling time without needing any rate information
(4) Heat transfer applies only at equilibrium states

104. In heat conduction through a solid wall, what does the term L/kA represent?

(1) Heat flux through the wall   (2) Thermal resistance of the wall
(3) Thermal conductance of the wall   (4) Temperature difference across the wall

105. In transient heat transfer, when can the lumped heat capacity method be used as per the given criterion?
(1) When Bi ≤ 0.1(2) When Bi ≥ 1(3) When Fo ≤ 0.1(4) When Fo ≥ 1
106. While using model test results to predict performance of a full-scale system, which pair of conditions must be satisfied according to dimensional analysis?

(1) Thermal similarity and chemical similarity
(2) Electrical similarity and magnetic similarity
(3) Geometric similarity and material similarity only
(4) Dimensional similarity and dynamic similarity

107. A small solid ball at 90°C is suddenly dipped in a well-stirred fluid at 30°C and cools by convection (h). When can you correctly use lumped system analysis?

(1) Ball has a large temperature gradient from centre to surface
(2) Heat loss is mainly by radiation, so h is not needed
(3) Ball temperature stays almost uniform inside at any time
(4) Fluid temperature is not uniform because stirring is poor

108. In a factory room, air near a hot machine starts moving without any fan: warm air goes up and cooler air comes down. What does the heat transfer mean?

(1) Forced convection (air moved by fan/pump)
(2) Natural (free) convection (buoyancy due to density change)
(3) Radiation (heat transfer without contact)
(4) Conduction (heat transfer without fluid motion)

109. In a control circuit, a resistor is added to reduce excess current. What is its main function?

(1) Stores electrical charge   (2) Opposes/restricts current flow
(3) Increases current flow   (4) Produces magnetic field

110. In a machine control circuit diagram, a voltage source is drawn inside a diamond with “+” and “−” inside it. What does this symbol mainly mean?

(1) It gives a fixed voltage
(2) It is a dependent current source
(3) It is a dependent voltage source
(4) It is a resistor symbol used to drop voltage

111. In a workshop, a shaft bearing shows wear and the designer wants a type where the worn lining can be replaced easily without changing the whole block. Which bearing matches this?
(1) Bushed bearing(2) Solid bearing(3) Footstep bearing(4) Thrust bearing
112. What is shear stress (τ) proportional to in Newton’s law of viscous flow?

(1) Density of fluid (ρ)   (2) Plate area (A) only
(3) Velocity gradient (du/dy)   (4) Film thickness (h) only

113. What type of bearing condition is assumed in Petroff’s equation for lightly loaded bearings?

(1) Eccentric bearing (large offset of shaft)
(2) Concentric bearing (very small eccentricity)
(3) Dry bearing (no oil in clearance)
(4) Leaky bearing (side leakage is large)

114. In thermal design of bearings, what temperature is used to find the viscosity of the lubricant?

(1) Inlet temperature of lubricant   (2) Outlet temperature of lubricant
(3) Average of inlet and outlet temperatures   (4) Ambient air temperature

115. What is the volume of metal removed per minute during machining?
(1) πDtfN mm³/min(2) πDfT mm³(3) πDN/1000(4) V×1000×t×f×T mm³
116. A turning tool is expected to work at high cutting speed and the tool tip may reach about 580°C. Which tool material is the best choice?

(1) High carbon steel   (2) High speed steel
(3) High carbon medium alloy steel   (4) Cemented carbide

117. What are the two main kinematic functions of a machine tool drive?

(1) Convert heat to work and store energy in flywheel
(2) Increase tool hardness and reduce cutting temperature
(3) Transmit motion and convert rotary to reciprocating motion
(4) Measure brake power and calculate specific fuel consumption

118. A long job needs a small external taper on a lathe. Which method is suitable as per taper turning methods?

(1) Compound rest method (steep short taper, internal)
(2) Compound rest method (small taper, long job, external)
(3) Tailstock set-over method (steep short taper, internal)
(4) Tailstock set-over method (small taper, long job, external)

119. While drawing a Bezier curve in CAD, what are the defining data points called?

(1) Tangent vectors that fix the curve   (2) Grid points used only for scaling
(3) Control points that shape the curve   (4) Midpoints where the curve must pass

120. In NC manufacturing, a routing sheet is prepared during process planning. What does this routing sheet mainly contain?

(1) Operation steps and machine details   (2) Drawing sizes only
(3) Inspection steps only   (4) Tool material data

121. In computer-assisted part programming, which unit performs the mathematical calculations required to generate the tool path for machining?

(1) Input translation unit   (2) Arithmetic calculation unit
(3) Cutter offset unit   (4) Post processor unit

122. In a DNC setup running many CNC machines, how does the machine get its part program when it needs commands?

(1) From punched tape at machine   (2) From central computer memory
(3) By manual data entry only   (4) From machine’s own storage

123. While calibrating a measuring instrument to ensure traceability, which factor limits the final measurement accuracy because it cannot be calibrated out?
(1) Scale factor(2) Static calibration(3) Repeatability(4) Primary standard
124. For repeated readings that show random errors, which method from the passage helps reduce random error and also measure spread of readings?

(1) Take mean value and find standard deviation
(2) Do calibration using primary standard
(3) Multiply by scale factor
(4) Use tolerance limits to correct readings

125. In mechanical measurement, when a quantity is measured by comparing it directly with a standard like a scale or micrometer, which method is used?

(1) Indirect method   (2) Direct method
(3) Comparative method   (4) Transposition method

126. In precision manufacturing, what happens when tolerance limits are made tighter to improve product accuracy?
(1) Cost rises fast(2) Cost drops fast(3) Cost same(4) Cost zero
127. A machine part vibrates inside oil, and the damping force increases when the velocity increases. Which damping type is this?
(1) Coulomb damping(2) Material damping(3) Viscous damping(4) No damping
128. In a vertical spring–mass system, why can the weight of the mass be ignored during vibration analysis?

(1) Because gravity acts only at the upper end of the spring
(2) Because weight is balanced by spring force at static equilibrium
(3) Because spring stiffness k becomes zero at rest
(4) Because acceleration due to gravity is neglected

129. Dunkerley’s formula is based on which idea for most vibrating systems?

(1) Fundamental frequency is the highest
(2) Higher natural frequencies are larger than fundamental frequency
(3) Exact matrix solution gives frequency
(4) Stiffness matrix is taken as zero

130. In a reciprocating engine, why does a valve start opening before dead centre and close after dead centre?

(1) To increase compression ratio
(2) Because valve motion is gradual over many crank degrees
(3) Because suction and exhaust strokes are shorter
(4) To avoid using a cam mechanism

131. Volumetric efficiency (ηv) tells how well an engine “breathes”. As per the definition, which ratio correctly gives ηv?

(1) Swept volume / Actual volume of charge at atmospheric condition
(2) Actual volume of charge at atmospheric condition / Swept volume
(3) Brake power / Indicated power
(4) Fuel flow rate / Air flow rate

132. While doing fuel–air cycle calculations, at very high temperature (about 1600 K), which factor explains the presence of CO, H₂ and O₂ even at equilibrium?

(1) Effect of dissociation   (2) Actual composition of cylinder gases
(3) Variation of specific heat with temperature   (4) Variation in number of molecules

133. In the Diesel (constant pressure) cycle, which option correctly gives the heat addition process and the cut-off ratio?
(1) 1→2, constant volume; ρ=V2/V1(2) 3→4, constant volume; ρ=V4/V3
(3) 2→3, constant volume; ρ=V3/V2(4) 4→1, constant volume; ρ=V1/V4
134. A car has a single body-frame shell, and engine and suspension are mounted on it. Which pair matches this design?

(1) Ladder frame; cage-like safety   (2) Monocoque; low rigidity
(3) Ladder frame; low-volume costly   (4) Monocoque; cage-like safety

135. For driving on slippery or muddy roads, which option is correct for a 4×4 vehicle?

(1) Power to two wheels; more grip   (2) Power to all wheels; less weight
(3) Power to two wheels; all wheels drive   (4) Power to all wheels; less mileage

136. In an I.C. engine, the piston is at TDC. Which statement matches the correct definition?

(1) Clearance volume is above piston at TDC
(2) Bore is piston travel from TDC to BDC
(3) Stroke is inside diameter of cylinder
(4) Swept volume is volume above piston at TDC

137. In a modern high-speed diesel engine, which part is engine-driven, sends fuel automatically to the injection system, and often has a hand primer lever to remove air?
(1) Fuel tank(2) Fuel transfer pump(3) Fuel filter(4) Fuel injector
138. A refrigerator removes heat at –10°C and rejects it at 40°C. What is its Carnot COP after converting temperatures to Kelvin?
(1) 4.8(2) 6.3(3) 5.3(4) 7.3
139. For heat flow by conduction through a flat plate (area A, thickness L) between T1 and T2, which formula is correct?
(1) Qf = Ak/L (T1−T2)(2) Qf = LK/A (T1−T2)(3) Qf = AkL(T1−T2)(4) Qf = A/kL (T1−T2)
140. In a refrigeration system, to stop oil from collecting in the evaporator and to bring oil back to the compressor, which condition is most important in design?

(1) Keep suction line perfectly horizontal
(2) Keep minimum gas/flow velocity in the circuit
(3) Reduce gas velocity so oil settles safely
(4) Use oil drainage pots for all refrigerants

141. A condenser rejects 10 kW at 45°C when outdoor is 30°C. If outdoor becomes 20°C and load becomes 6 kW, what will be the new condensing temperature?
(1) 24°C(2) 29°C(3) 26°C(4) 33°C
142. In a refrigeration compressor, why do pressure gauges often show extra temperature markings for common refrigerants?

(1) To reduce gas pulsations in the line   (2) To measure oil level in the compressor
(3) To increase pressure in suction line   (4) To show condensing/evaporating temp from saturation

143. In a well-insulated duct, air with RH < 100% contacts water. What happens at outlet?
(1) Drier; T rises(2) Saturated; T falls(3) Unsaturated; T rises(4) No change in T
144. In a combustion reaction, what are the substances called that are present before burning starts?
(1) Products(2) Reactants(3) Residues(4) Ash
145. A mild steel rod is loaded only within its elastic / proportional limit. Which relation correctly shows Hooke’s law?

(1) Stress is directly proportional to strain   (2) Stress is inversely proportional to strain
(3) Stress is equal to strain   (4) Stress does not depend on strain

146. For a cantilever beam with a point load P, if bending moment at a section x from the fixed end is given by Mx = −Px, what is the maximum bending moment and where does it occur?

(1) Mmax = −PL at x = L (fixed end)   (2) Mmax = +PL at x = L (fixed end)
(3) Mmax = −P(L−x) at free end   (4) Mmax = 0 at fixed end

147. In an overhanging beam, the bending moment changes from positive to negative (or vice-versa). What is the point called where the bending moment becomes zero after this sign change?
(1) Point of contraflexure(2) Neutral axis(3) Fixed end(4) Shear centre
148. Which of the following correctly explains the Kelvin–Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics?

(1) Heat can flow from cold to hot without work input
(2) No device can convert all heat from a single source into work
(3) Heat cannot be transferred at constant temperature
(4) Work can be completely converted into heat

149. In 1-D heat conduction through a solid wall, Fourier law is written as Q = −kA dT/dx. What does the negative sign mainly show?

(1) Heat flows toward increasing temperature
(2) Heat flows in direction of negative temperature gradient
(3) Thermal conductivity k is always negative
(4) Area A decreases heat flow

150. In a closed container filled with a fluid at rest, if you apply pressure at one point (like pressing with a piston), what happens to that pressure?

(1) It reduces as it moves away from the point
(2) It transmits equally to all parts and container walls
(3) It acts only in the downward direction
(4) It acts only on the fluid, not on the walls

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BEL PYQ Probationary Engineer Official Papers

Exam pattern (as conducted): 125 Questions, 125 Marks, 120 Minutes.

2025 Papers

BranchDate & ShiftQuestion Paper PDF Download
Mechanical Engineering31 May 2025Updated On Demand
Electronics Engineering31 May 2025, Shift 1Updated On Demand
Electrical Engineering20 December 2025, Shift 1Updated On Demand
Mechanical Engineering20 December 2025, Shift 1Updated On Demand
Electronics Engineering20 December 2025, Shift 2Updated On Demand
Computer Science Engineering20 December 2025, Shift 3Updated On Demand

Also Visit : IOCL Previous Year Question Papers 2024-25: All Branches PDF (Executive & Non-Executive)

2023 Papers (Held 17 December 2023)

BranchShiftQuestion Paper PDF Download
Mechanical EngineeringShift 1Updated On Demand
Mechanical EngineeringShift 2Updated On Demand
Electronics & Communication EngineeringShift 1Updated On Demand
Computer Science EngineeringShift 1Updated On Demand
BEL All Branches Previous Year Official Question Paper
BEL Deputy Engineer, PE और TE परीक्षा के Previous Year Question Papers (2023-2026) Tell Me If you Want

BEL Trainee Engineer Previous Year Question Papers

2025 Papers

BranchDate & ShiftQuestion Paper PDF Download
Electronics Engineering25 October 2025Updated Soon
Mechanical Engineering25 October 2025Updated Soon
Electrical Engineering26 October 2025Updated Soon
Electronics Engineering31 May 2025, Shift 1Updated Soon
Mechanical Engineering31 May 2025, Shift 2Updated Soon

2023 Papers (Held 17 December 2023)

BranchShiftQuestion Paper PDF Download
Mechanical EngineeringShift 1Updated Soon
Electronics EngineeringShift 1Updated Soon
Computer Science EngineeringShift 1Updated Soon

BEL Probationary Engineer vs Trainee Engineer vs Deputy Engineer: Key Differences

PointProbationary EngineerTrainee EngineerDeputy Engineer
Entry LevelFresher-level technical postFresher-level technical postExperienced-hire technical post
Exam Pattern125 Q / 125 Marks / 120 MinSimilar objective-type structureGeneral Awareness + Technical/Trade Aptitude
Branches TestedMechanical, Electrical, Electronics, CSEMechanical, Electrical, Electronics, CSEBranch-specific (e.g. Civil, Mechanical)
Recent Exam CycleMay & December 2025October 2025 (also May 2025)February 2026

Why Solving PYQs Matters

Previous year papers show you exactly how BEL frames technical questions for your branch — something a generic textbook or coaching module can’t replicate. They also reveal real difficulty level and timing pressure (125 questions in 120 minutes leaves under a minute per question), so practicing with actual papers builds the speed and question-recognition instinct that generic practice sets don’t.

Also Visit : IOCL Production Manager Posts Recruitment 2026 Apply Now

How to Use These Previous Year Papers Effectively

  • Start with your own branch and the most recent year first — the 2025/2026 papers reflect BEL’s current question style most closely.
  • Time yourself to the actual exam duration (120 minutes for Probationary Engineer) rather than solving questions untimed.
  • Compare shift-wise papers within the same year — different shifts on the same date can reveal which topics BEL repeats across sessions.
  • Cross-check your technical-section mistakes against your core branch syllabus, not just the answer key, so you understand the underlying concept gap.

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FAQ

Where can I download BEL Probationary Engineer previous year question papers ?

All BEL Probationary Engineer, Trainee Engineer, and Deputy Engineer PYQ PDFs are hosted directly on Notifyhere.com — see the branch-wise tables above and updated time to time as per user require.

Is the BEL Deputy Engineer question paper (1 Feb 2026) available for download ?

Yes, it’s included above as the most recently added paper in this collection.

What is the BEL Probationary Engineer exam pattern (questions/marks/duration) ?

125 questions for 125 marks, to be completed in 120 minutes.

What is the BEL Deputy Engineer exam pattern ?

It follows a General Awareness plus Technical/Trade Aptitude structure.

Are branch-wise (Mechanical/Electrical/Electronics/CSE) papers available separately ?

Yes, each branch’s paper is listed separately by year and shift in the tables above.

Is BEL Trainee Engineer different from BEL Probationary Engineer ?

Yes, they are separate BEL recruitment exams, though both test similar branches at a fresher level with an objective-type pattern.

How many previous year papers are available for BEL Probationary Engineer ?

10 papers are currently listed across 2023 and 2025, spanning all major branches and multiple shifts.

What language are the BEL question papers in ?

Most papers are in English; several 2025 and 2023 papers are also available in Hindi, as noted in the tables.

Do these papers come with solutions/answers ?

Solutions are being added progressively — check the specific paper’s download page for availability.

What is the BEL Trainee Engineer exam pattern ?

It follows a similar objective-type structure to Probationary Engineer, branch-specific and conducted across multiple shifts.

Are there separate papers for different shifts on the same exam date ?

Yes — BEL often conducts multiple shifts on the same date for different branches, and each shift’s paper is listed separately above.

How should I use these previous year papers for preparation ?

Solve them timed, branch-first, starting with the most recent year, and cross-check mistakes against your core syllabus rather than just the answer key.

Where can I get the latest BEL recruitment updates ?

Follow the Telegram, WhatsApp, and YouTube links in the Important Links section above for real-time updates.

Author’s Suggestion

If you’re preparing for the Deputy Engineer level, don’t skip the Probationary/Trainee Engineer papers entirely — the core technical sections overlap heavily across all three BEL exams, even though Deputy Engineer adds a General Awareness component.


Disclaimer

Question papers listed here are compiled from BEL’s conducted recruitment exams across 2023-2026 for reference and practice purposes. Candidates should verify the latest official exam pattern and syllabus directly on bel-india.in before relying solely on previous year papers for preparation.

BEL PYQ Probationary Engineer
BEL Deputy Engineer, PE और TE परीक्षा के Previous Year Question Papers (2023-2026) PDF यहाँ से डाउनलोड करें। (1 Feb 2026 Official Paper Included)
About the Author
Lushubh Meena
A versatile job notification specialist delivering fast, accurate and well-researched updates across all government exams, helping aspirants stay informed with clear insights and reliable guidance.
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